Solution: Efficiency of Homopolar Disc Coupling
Step 1: Induced EMF in Rotating Discs
For a disc of radius $r$ rotating with angular velocity $\omega$ in a perpendicular magnetic field $B$, the induced EMF between the center and the rim is:
$$ \varepsilon = \int_0^r B (\omega x) dx = \frac{1}{2} B \omega r^2 $$Let the EMFs of discs A and B be $\varepsilon_A = \frac{1}{2} B \omega_A r^2$ and $\varepsilon_B = \frac{1}{2} B \omega_B r^2$.
Step 2: Circuit Current and Torque
The discs are connected in a loop. The net EMF drives current $I$ through the total resistance $R$:
$$ I = \frac{\varepsilon_A – \varepsilon_B}{R} = \frac{B r^2}{2R} (\omega_A – \omega_B) $$The magnetic torque exerted on a current-carrying disc is given by $\tau_{mag} = \int x dF = \int_0^r x (I B dx / r)$? No, considering radial current density, the integration yields:
$$ \tau_{mag} = \frac{1}{2} I B r^2 $$For Disc B (Output), this magnetic torque overcomes the load torque $\tau$. So, $\tau = \frac{1}{2} I B r^2$.
Step 3: Calculating Efficiency
Efficiency $\eta$ is defined as Power Output divided by Power Input.
- Power Out: $P_{out} = \tau \omega_B$
- Power In: Power supplied to Disc A. The motor must overcome the magnetic counter-torque on A. Since the same current $I$ flows through A, the torque on A is also $\tau_A = \frac{1}{2} I B r^2 = \tau$. Thus, $P_{in} = \tau \omega_A$.
Now we express $\omega_A$ in terms of $\omega_B$ and constants. From the torque equation:
$$ \tau = \frac{1}{2} B r^2 \left( \frac{B r^2 (\omega_A – \omega_B)}{2R} \right) = \frac{B^2 r^4}{4R} (\omega_A – \omega_B) $$ $$ \implies \omega_A – \omega_B = \frac{4 R \tau}{B^2 r^4} $$ $$ \implies \omega_A = \omega_B + \frac{4 R \tau}{B^2 r^4} $$Substituting this back into the efficiency formula:
